Hi Min
I won't be around much today. My mother has just had a hip operation, so I'll be at the hospital for most of the day. But I may be able to pick up on this later.
Minimalist wrote:I'm all for religious syncretism, Ish. I guess the question is did the Egyptians influence Sumer or did the Sumerians influence Egypt OR, were they both influenced by what Hancock called "the remote common ancestor."
Part of the point is that Egypt-Canaan-the Hittite Empire-Mesopotamia were in contact, violently or commercially and were not dependent on "Israel" for such contact.
I'm not at this point trying to identify the common ancestor of the myths, especially as there are so many holes in our knowledge. It's probably a toss up between the Sumerian and the Vedics age-wise - but who knows what was before that.
But around the first millennium BC, the priestcraft of every country was cosmopolitan and travelled widely, which is why the fabric of the mythology across Mesopotamia, Egypt and India weaves itself into such a syncretic pattern. Pythagorus, for example, studied first under the Hebrew Rabbis, then he went to Egypt where he was initiated into the Mysteries and then on to Ellora in India, where he studied with the Brahmins. Plato too was initiated into the Mysteries in Egypt, and the story told to him by Solon about Atlantis can actually be read in the original Egyptian Destruction of Mankind texts. It was an astronomical teaching story taught to initiates - and not a history lesson.
http://www.sacred-texts.com/egy/leg/leg15.htm
Because we cannot prove whose stories came first, this information is useless to you as a stick to beat Arch with (which is why I'm happy to provide it!
) However, it’s unlikely that anyone would put a myth together based on something that actually happened. The whole point of them is that they are teaching stories, and each character, location, dialogue and plotline is there to serve the lesson being taught. It would be unlikely and one heck of a coincidence if a historical event would have all the components necessary to fulfil that function. Thus the fact that the Exodus exists as an Egyptian astronomical and eschatological myth would make it extremely unlikely that a real Jewish Exodus ever really happened, especially given all the other evidence (or rather, lack of it).
However, the Hebrews at that time most likely knew it was a myth, just like everyone else in the geographical area did. It was only later that it became literalised. Or, if you look at how the Australian Aborgines consider Dreamtime - they don't separate it from 'reality' - maybe the Hebrews never even asked the question 'did this really happen?', because it was irrelevant to its purpose to them.
Minimalist wrote:
We know that Persia worshipped the single god Ahura Mazda. We also know that Persia conquered Babylon by coup de main capturing the city intact. We next have the Persians sending the "Jews" back from Exile but, as has been previously discussed, the people who were sent back were basically Babylonians. Prof. Davies' point is that the returnees would have been strangers in the land and they were handed this story to legitimize their rule over those who were not shipped out by the Babylonians.
I know this is the theory. But I’ve not seen the evidence for it. I’m not saying that it doesn’t exist ... just that I haven’t seen it.
I also find it hard to imagine how the migrating Babylonians could be ‘handed a story’ that had been extant for thousands of years, and which was part of the ritual life of all these Meso peoples anyway. It’s a bit like, say if America was invaded by the Chinese and then the Chinese said:
“OK, Americans listen up. There’s this old man with a long white beard and red coat that lives at the North Pole and he distributes presents to those who are good. So if you do what we say, he will bring you presents when you die.”
You’d just laugh and say, “Sorry ... but that’s just a story we tell our children. Santa Claus doesn’t really exist. He’s a mythological character.”
I think the Hebrews would have found it equally risible if the Babylonians or Persians had tried to re-sell their own gods back to them, Yahwah being a Canaanite god. Secondly, the Egyptians had a flirtation with monotheism in Akhenaton’s Aten long before the Persians showed up. Thirdly, even in polytheism, there is/was always one chief god (or goddess) above all the others, thus making all polytheists actually henotheists. In fact, this is shown in the first line from the Destruction of Mankind text:
[Here is the story of Ra,] the god who was self-begotten and self-created, after he had assumed the sovereignty over men and women, and gods, and things, the ONE god.
Who does that remind you of?
Minimalist wrote:
I don't have a problem with Massey's work. I think he would feel vindicated if he knew what archaeology has discovered since his death. It's a bit like the discussion of whether the Deist, Thomas Jefferson, would have been an atheist if he had known 230 years ago what science knows now.
I don't quite see how Massey’s work relates to your Thomas Jefferson point. There is little that Massey would have to change about his thinking in the light of recent archaeological findings - as you say, he is vindicated - whereas your point here is that Jefferson would have to change his thinking.
However, I don’t even agree with that last point because, as we’ve discussed on many occasions, science has not disproved the existence of God. And if anything, the new sciences coming through now are producing theories about the universe that are not dissimilar to those of ancient man as recorded in his myths, and who definitely was not an atheist.
Massey's book is available online if you want to take a quick look at it. Sorry it's such a long url.
http://books.google.co.uk/books?hl=en&i ... &ct=result
Talk to you later.....