Posted: Tue Apr 22, 2008 10:14 am
Such anachronisms do turn up in the later "prophetic" books. I know that much.The Dtr is also entirely lacking in the sort of anachronisms we would expect from a Hellenistic text.
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Such anachronisms do turn up in the later "prophetic" books. I know that much.The Dtr is also entirely lacking in the sort of anachronisms we would expect from a Hellenistic text.
That's a tough one only because we really don't know if it isn't hust a medieval creation or something older. I think its likely pretty late, like 8th or 9th century CErich wrote:Soo - what of the Sefer Yetsirah - would that also be influenced by the greeks then? Or a deeper look into Zoroastrianism?
I don't think Cyrus actually set up the temple. The temple probably doesn't get set up until Darius II around the same time he set up temples in Egypt to placate them (thus ending a series of Egyptian rebellions that sometimes saw Abarnahara as an Egyptian ally). I think that is when some of the anti-Egyptian stories about slavery and oppression by Egypt were created. Of course even those stories were later reworked on order to play up Jewish nationalism.Ishtar wrote:That's an interesting theory, Seeker. Care to expand on it?
For instance, are you one of those who believe that the temple at Jerusalem was solely set up by Cyrus to serve the Abarnahara satrap, that the Jews were actually a sect of Zoroastrianised priests and were never a nation until the time of the Maccabees?
It's certainly possible. I know that convention puts it in the first or second centurybut I tend to think it is a product of Kabbalistic thinking in medieval times. The earliest references to it are in the 10th century (as far as I know) so I tend to go with that date.rich wrote:I thought the Kabala was from the medievil ages but the Sefir Yetsirah from around the first century BCE.
You have to be careful when dating the Septuagint, it was translated in stages, some bits as late as the 1st century BCE. The only consensus I know of is that the Pentateuch was probably the first bit translated somewhere around the mid 3rd century BCE. Since the oldest texts are mid-second century and the oldest references later than that we don't really know what form the very first mid 3rd century texts were. The oldest manuscripts of Genesis, Exodus, Numbers and some of the Prophets are first century BCE while only bits of Deuteronomy and Leviticus have been found that are older (2nd century BCE).Minimalist wrote:One of Davies' best points is that the final canonization of the OT is that it was only completed very late, perhaps in the Maccabean era.
This is odd in itself as the Septuagint dates from at least a century earlier.
Perhaps the Alexandrian Jews and the Babylonian Jews had different books from the Jerusalem clan?
it was translated in stages
One way or another a stage wa being setMinimalist wrote:it was translated in stages
Reasonable....if it was written in stages.
Apart from the Pharisee/Parasee idea, what else makes you think that Judaism was an isolated form of Zoroastrianism?seeker wrote:
Basically Judaism was an isolated form of Zoroastrianism that was cut off and evolved separately from the Persian branch when the Persian Empire fell. I think its greatly telling that the major teaching sect was a group called the Pharisees, a word whose etymology seems inexact but a word whose closest root is the word Parese (which is hebrew for Persian) the plural of which is Parasee.
There are tons of parallels between Zoroastrianism and Judaism. Angelology, messianism, eschatology, rituals, rtc are all similar enough that tons of literature have been generated about them. We also know enough about theology in the Levant before the Persian conquest to identify much of Judaism as foreign to many of those beliefs.Ishtar wrote:Apart from the Pharisee/Parasee idea, what else makes you think that Judaism was an isolated form of Zoroastrianism?seeker wrote:
Basically Judaism was an isolated form of Zoroastrianism that was cut off and evolved separately from the Persian branch when the Persian Empire fell. I think its greatly telling that the major teaching sect was a group called the Pharisees, a word whose etymology seems inexact but a word whose closest root is the word Parese (which is hebrew for Persian) the plural of which is Parasee.
Actually you are a little turned around. From your own sourceMinimalist wrote:A brief discussion of the pharisee/sadducee/essene division.
It seems odd that "Jesus" would have been an opponent of the pharisees as they seem the more modernistic (Hellenistic?) of the 3.
http://www.jewishvirtuallibrary.org/jso ... senes.html
It was actually the Pharisees who eventually developed the more radical Zealot and Essene subgroups from which Christianity developed. The reason that the Pharisees are later demonized in the NT is due to the Christian need to demonize Judaism. [/quote]The Sadducees were elitists who wanted to maintain the priestly caste, but they were also liberal in their willingness to incorporate Hellenism into their lives, something the Pharisees opposed.
The Pharisees also maintained that an afterlife existed and that God punished the wicked and rewarded the righteous in the world to come. They also believed in a messiah who would herald an era of world peace.
It is very Christian but also very Zoroastrian. In fact the Zoroastrian version of the afterlife involves both a heaven and a hell as well as a sort of trial by ordeal. Here is a brief discussion.Minimalist wrote:From the same source, seeker.
The Pharisees also maintained that an afterlife existed and that God punished the wicked and rewarded the righteous in the world to come. They also believed in a messiah who would herald an era of world peace.
I'm no expert but isn't that the basic line of xtian thinking?