Posted: Sun Aug 17, 2008 12:10 pm
First off, by 66 AD the term "Israel" is meaningless. Antipas was Tetrarch of Galilee and Perea. Herod the Great was king of Judaea but the kingdom was partitioned at his death.
"Israel" as a political entity had ceased with the Assyrian attack.
The only evidence (whether or not it is "enough" is subjective) is Josephus' statement. You know, "Luke" (or whoever) makes the mistake of forgetting that in 6 AD Galilee and Judaea were separate countries so he has "Joseph" and "Mary" (alleged citizens of "Nazareth" in Galilee journeying to "Bethlehem" in Judaea to take part in a census that did not concern them in the least. Luke doubtlessly read Josephus so perhaps his mistake is derived from this passage which seems to indicate some political affinity between Galilee and Judaea which did not exist.
Josephus has obvious motives behind some of his writing... either to excuse his own conduct in defecting to the Romans or praising Titus and Vespasian, his patrons. I just don't think that it is above Josephus to try to clear his own faction by blaming others for the start of the troubles which led to the destruction of the country.
Finally, let's not forget that there were two major cities in Galilee: Sepphoris and Tiberias. Sepphoris locked its gates against Josephus and his rebels and Tiberias surrendered to the Romans without a fight. How dedicated to the cause does that sound to you?
"Israel" as a political entity had ceased with the Assyrian attack.
The only evidence (whether or not it is "enough" is subjective) is Josephus' statement. You know, "Luke" (or whoever) makes the mistake of forgetting that in 6 AD Galilee and Judaea were separate countries so he has "Joseph" and "Mary" (alleged citizens of "Nazareth" in Galilee journeying to "Bethlehem" in Judaea to take part in a census that did not concern them in the least. Luke doubtlessly read Josephus so perhaps his mistake is derived from this passage which seems to indicate some political affinity between Galilee and Judaea which did not exist.
Josephus has obvious motives behind some of his writing... either to excuse his own conduct in defecting to the Romans or praising Titus and Vespasian, his patrons. I just don't think that it is above Josephus to try to clear his own faction by blaming others for the start of the troubles which led to the destruction of the country.
Finally, let's not forget that there were two major cities in Galilee: Sepphoris and Tiberias. Sepphoris locked its gates against Josephus and his rebels and Tiberias surrendered to the Romans without a fight. How dedicated to the cause does that sound to you?